Question

Which of the following is different from the others?

• A. $p\to q$
• B. $(\sim q)\to (\sim p)$
• C. $\sim p\vee q$
• D. None of these

Answer 1

Answer: (D)

We know that
$p\to q=(\sim q)\to (\sim P)=\sim p\vee q$
So, all the three statements are logically equivalent.