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Mathematics
Which of the following is different from the others?
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Q. Which of the following is different from the others?
Mathematical Reasoning
A
$p \to q$
0%
B
$(\sim q) \to (\sim p)$
67%
C
$\sim p \vee q$
33%
D
None of these
0%
Solution:
We know that
$p \to q = (\sim q) \to (\sim P) = \sim p \vee q$
So, all the three statements are logically equivalent.