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Question
Mathematics
If y = (logcos x sin x) (lognx cos x) +sin-1(2x/1+x2),then(dy/dx) at x=(π/2) is equal to
Q.
I
f
y
=
(
l
o
g
cos
x
s
in
x
)
(
l
o
g
n
x
cos
x
)
+
s
i
n
−
1
1
+
x
2
2
x
,
t
h
e
n
d
x
d
y
a
t
x
=
2
π
is equal to
2031
200
Report Error
A
(
4
+
π
2
)
8
50%
B
0
50%
C
−
(
4
+
π
2
)
8
0%
D
1
0%
Solution:
Correct answer is (a)
(
4
+
π
2
)
8