Question Error Report

Thank you for reporting, we will resolve it shortly

Back to Question

Q. Statement-1: $f ( x )=\tan ^{-1} x$ is a one-one function. because
Statement-2: If $f ^{\prime}( x )>0$ for all $x$ in domain of $f ( x )$ then $f ( x )$ is one-one..

Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Solution:

$f (x) = \tan x, f ' (x) > 0 $
for all x in the domain of $f$ but tan $x$ is not one-one, it is many one

Solution Image