Q. It is given that $ \sum\limits_{r=1}^{\infty }{\frac{1}{{{(2r-1)}^{2}}}}=\frac{{{\pi }^{2}}}{8}, $ then $ \sum\limits_{r=1}^{\infty }{\frac{1}{{{r}^{2}}}} $ is equal to
Bihar CECEBihar CECE 2010
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