Q. If $f(x)=x^{n},$ then the value of $f(1)+\frac{f^{1}(1)}{1}+\frac{f^{2}(1)}{2 !}+\cdots+\frac{f^{n}(1)}{n !},$ where $f^{r}(x)$ denotes the rth order derivative of $f(x)$ with respect to $x$, is
Binomial Theorem
Solution: