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Q. If $ cos\,\theta_1 = \frac{1}{2} ( x + \frac{1}{x}), cos\,\theta_2 = \frac{1}{2} (y + \frac{1}{y})$ then $cos(\theta_1 - \theta_2)$ equals

Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Solution:

Correct answer is (d) None of these