Consider the function g(x)=f2(x)−x2,x∈[a,b] g(a)=f2(a)−a2
and g(b)=f2(b)−b2
Let g(a)=g(b) ∴f2(a)−a2=f2(b)−b2 f2(a)−f2(b)=a2−b2 which is true
Hence, Rolle’s theorem is applicable to g(x)
So, there exists at least one c∈(a,b) where g′(c)=0
Now, g′(x)=2f(x)⋅f′(x)−2x=0 ∴f(x)⋅f′(x)=x
i.e., f(c)⋅f′(c)−c=0