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Question
Mathematics
Let f: R → R be a twice continuously differentiable function such that f(0) = f(1) = f'(0) = 0. Then
Q. Let
f
:
R
→
R
be a twice continuously differentiable function such that
f
(
0
)
=
f
(
1
)
=
f
′
(
0
)
=
0
. Then
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212
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A
f
′′
(
0
)
=
0
0%
B
f
′′
(
c
)
=
0
for some
c
∈
R
67%
C
if
c
=
0
, then
f
′′
(
c
)
=
0
33%
D
f
′
(
x
)
>
0
for all
x
=
0
0%
Solution:
We have,
f
:
R
→
R
be a twice continuously differentiable function such that
f
(
0
)
=
f
(
1
)
=
f
′
(
0
)
=
0
Now, for atleast one value of
c
1
∈
(
0
,
1
)
,
f
′
(
c
1
)
=
0
(by Rolle's theorem)
Again,
f
′
(
0
)
=
0
=
f
′
(
c
1
)
⇒
f
′
(
c
)
=
0
for some
c
∈
(
0
,
c
1
)
(by Rolle's theorem)