f(1)=1,f(2)=4,f(3)=9 Let g(x)=f(x)−x2 We have g(1)=0,g(2)=0,g(3)=0
hence by Rolles Theorem g′(x)=0 for some c∈(1,2) are g′(x)=0 for some d∈(2,3) again using Rolles Theorem
for g′(x)=f′(x)−2x f′′(x)=0 for some x∈(c,d) f′′(x)−2=0 for some x∈(c,d) f′′(x)=2 for some x∈(1,3)