f(x)=x−1,1≤x≤2 g(x)=x−1+bsin2πx,1≤x≤2 f(1)=0;f(2)=1⇒ Rolle's theorem is not applicable to ' f ' but LMVT is applicable to f. (∵x−1 is continuous and differentiable in [1,2] and (1,2) respectively) Now g(1)=b;g(2)=1 and
Function x−1,sin2πx are both continuous in [1,2] and (1,2) ∴ For Rolle's theorem to be applicable to g.
We must have b=1